JSAL Anesthesia Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the primary purpose of preoxygenation before induction of anesthesia?
• How do general anesthesia and balanced anesthesia differ conceptually?
• What constitutes a lung-protective ventilation strategy during anesthesia?
• What are the normal arterial blood pressures in adult anesthetized dogs and cats?
• What is the duration of action of ephedrine?
• Carprofen acts primarily as which of the following?
• In the LEMON airway assessment, the '3-3-2' rule refers to which combination of measurements?
• In high aspiration risk patients, which extubation strategy is preferred?
• What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine?
• What is the mechanism of action of atropine?
• In goal-directed fluid therapy, which type of indices are used to guide fluid administration?
• Which parameter best reflects the balance of oxygen delivery and consumption during anesthesia?
• What are typical PACU discharge criteria related to airway, circulation, and consciousness?
• What are some advantages of mild hypothermia and disadvantages of moderate-severe hypothermia?
• Which option correctly identifies atropine as a muscarinic antagonist?
• During preoxygenation, what is the rationale for denitrogenating the lungs?
• Which combination best describes the components of balanced anesthesia?
• What is the primary reason to use Bupivacaine for pre-scrotal SQ, IP, or QLB blocks?
• What is the recommended approach to anesthetic depth monitoring to minimize intraoperative awareness?
• How does aging affect benzodiazepine pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?
• What is the role of train-of-four (TOF) monitoring during anesthesia?
• What is a reasonable perioperative consideration for OSA patients regarding regional anesthesia?
• In cats, bradycardia is defined as heart rate below what value?
• According to the material, which statement about analgesics is accurate?
• During a spay, a Quadratus Lumborum Block primarily provides analgesia to which areas?
• What is the duration of action of Carprofen?
• In the initial phase of anesthesia, which cardiovascular effect may occur with dexmedetomidine?
• Which commonly used drugs in JSAL could likely cause your patient to become hypothermic?
• Which drugs commonly used in JSAL could likely cause hypotension and hypoventilation in an anesthetized patient?
• What special perioperative considerations are important for a patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
• What should you do if ETCO2 is less than 35 mmHg (hyperventilation)?
• Which statement best describes Mallampati scoring’s influence on airway management?
• How would you best describe hypoventilation in an anesthetized patient?
• Why is sevoflurane commonly used for pediatric inhalational induction?
• During the dexmedetomidine infusion, which phase is associated with bradycardia and hypotension?
• What is the duration of action of Morphine?
• Ketamine is associated with increased intracranial pressure. Which option best reflects this effect?
• Intraoperative anaphylaxis, what is the initial pharmacologic treatment step?
• Morphine's receptor target is which receptor?
• What is a common transfusion threshold for red blood cells in stable, non-bleeding adults undergoing elective surgery?
• In severe obesity, which ventilation strategy is recommended?
• Compared with general anesthesia, neuraxial anesthesia for cesarean delivery reduces which neonatal outcome in uncomplicated cases?
• What is a primary reason for perioperative glucose control in diabetic patients?
• Which statement best describes ventilation planning in severely obese patients?
• What is used to treat bradycardia during anesthesia?
• In a rebreathing system, high-flow is defined as which range in ml/kg/min?
• Which of the following describes a known side effect of Ketamine during anesthesia?
• Which drug is used as an opioid reversal?
• What is the onset of action of Buprenorphine when given intravenously?
• What is the onset of action of bupivacaine?
• Buprenorphine's receptor activity is best described as:
• Which statement best describes the effect of mild hypothermia on oxygen use during anesthesia?
• What is the most common sign of malignant hyperthermia?
• Propofol can contribute to hypothermia via which mechanism?
• What is a primary consideration when managing a patient with severe obesity during anesthesia?
• Which combination of agents is most closely associated with malignant hyperthermia triggers?
• In difficult airway management, what is a structured plan for escalating airway techniques?
• Which value represents a normal SpO2 in anesthetized dogs?
• What is the treatment for hypothermia during anesthesia?
• Which local anesthetic has an onset of 2 minutes?
• Which patient scenario best indicates the use of rapid sequence induction?
• How does propofol primarily affect systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output?
• Which vasopressor is commonly preferred to treat spinal anesthesia-associated hypotension and why?
• Which statement about isoflurane MAC is true?
• In dogs, bradycardia is defined as heart rate below what value?
• How would you best describe hyperventilation in an anesthetized patient?
• What is the maximum recommended dose of lidocaine for regional anesthesia in adults without and with epinephrine, respectively?
• Which combination best describes the overall approach to airway and ventilation in patients with severe obesity?
• Which steps constitute key actions to manage an intraoperative airway obstruction?
• Which ETCO2 value defines hypercapnia in anesthesia?
• What is the shared mechanism of action for bupivacaine and lidocaine?
• A low mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) during surgery most likely indicates:
• What is goal-directed fluid therapy?
• What is the first step you should take if bradycardia occurs during anesthesia?
• Spinal anesthesia can cause bradycardia by what mechanism, and what is an appropriate mitigation?
• Which side effect is associated with rapid IV administration of bupivacaine due to histamine release?
• Which statement accurately contrasts spinal and epidural anesthesia?
• Which antibiotic requires earlier dosing due to longer infusion times?
• Which signs indicate potential intraoperative anaphylaxis?
• What is the rationale behind using a Quadratus Lumborum Block during a spay?
• What does RSI stand for and when is it indicated?
• Which statement correctly pairs normal heart rate ranges for adult anesthetized dogs and cats?
• What is the mechanism of action of morphine?
• In Bupivacaine toxicity, what is the order of symptom progression?
• What is the normal respiratory rate in anesthetized adult dogs and cats?
• What is the normal body temp of adult anesthetized dogs and cats?
• List major risk factors for perioperative venous thromboembolism.
• Which fluid strategy is most consistent with preventing hypotension during spinal anesthesia?
• Lidocaine dose-dependent toxicity typically progresses in which sequence of signs?
• In malignant hyperthermia management, besides dantrolene, what supportive measures are essential?
• What is the normal heart rate range in adult anesthetized cats?
• Which monitoring modality most directly indicates adequacy of alveolar ventilation during general anesthesia?
• What is the duration of action of dexmedetomidine?
• Which indices are examples of dynamic physiologic indices used to guide goal-directed fluid therapy?
• What does capillary refill time (CRT) indicate during anesthesia?
• What is a recommended management for hypotension during anesthesia in dogs and cats?
• During malignant hyperthermia, which intraoperative finding most helps differentiate it from other fevers?
• What are the normal CRT values for adult anesthetized dogs and cats, and what is its clinical relevance during anesthesia?
• What is the normal mucous membrane color, and what is the clinical relevance of pale, bright pink, and blue/purple mucous membrane color in adult anesthetized dogs and cats?
• How does PEEP help prevent intraoperative atelectasis?
• What is the mechanism of action of bupivacaine?
• What is the initial management step for suspected LAST?
• Which statement best describes the ASA physical status classification system and its use?
• Which BIS value range is commonly targeted to avoid intraoperative awareness during general anesthesia?
• Which condition is atropine primarily used for?
• What is the recommended timing for antibiotic prophylaxis in clean-contaminated obstetric surgery?
• Which of the following is a possible side effect of Buprenorphine?
• Which sequence correctly describes how oxygen travels from the cylinder to the patient?
• What is the typical immediate management for intraoperative anaphylaxis?
• What is the duration of action of bupivacaine?
• What is the mechanism of action of Carprofen?
• In the LEMON airway assessment, what does the '3-3-2' rule assess?
• Which drug is most likely to cause bradycardia when used for sedation in anesthesia?
• Which anesthesia technique is associated with lower postoperative nausea and vomiting risk?
• Name two triggers of malignant hyperthermia.
• What is the best description of a sinus arrhythmia in an anesthetized dog as seen on an ECG?
• What is the role and basic dosing of dantrolene in malignant hyperthermia management?
• What is a typical initial fentanyl dosing approach for intraoperative analgesia in opioid-naive adults?
• Which of the following describes adverse effects associated with Carprofen?
• Which statement best preserves coronary perfusion during anesthesia in ischemia risk?
• Which statement is true about the MAC value of isoflurane as provided?
• Which agent is associated with rapid onset local analgesia when used intratesticularly?
• During maintenance of anesthesia, why is low fresh gas flow used?
• What is the duration of action of lidocaine when used to treat ventricular tachyarrhythmias?
• Buprenorphine's mechanism of action is best described as:
• Which drug in the analgesic list is a local anesthetic?
• Which drug is known to cause sympathetic stimulation with increased heart rate and blood pressure during anesthesia?
• What is the standard management for hypoventilation under anesthesia?
• What is the duration of action of Buprenorphine?
• What is the characteristic hemodynamic risk for patients with severe aortic stenosis during induction of anesthesia?
• What is the duration of action of atropine?
• For prophylactic antibiotics in clean-contaminated surgery, what is the timing for vancomycin or fluoroquinolones?
• In obstetric cesarean delivery, what is a primary advantage of neuraxial anesthesia in uncomplicated cases?
• What are common intraoperative signs of hypothermia and a key preventive measure?
• What is the onset of action of atropine when given intravenously?
• What is the mechanism of action of propofol?
• Which statement best describes the use of norepinephrine and ephedrine in anesthesia?
• Two common signs of opioid toxicity in the perioperative period?
• Which side effect is less pronounced with Buprenorphine due to its MOA?
• In neuraxial blocks, what distinguishes isobaric from hyperbaric local anesthetic solutions?
• What is the rationale behind using lidocaine as an intratesticular local anesthetic?
• Regional anesthesia in obstetric patients reduces the risk of which complication?
• Spinal anesthesia typically has what onset profile compared with epidural?
• What is the normal heart rate range in adult anesthetized dogs?
• Which sign is NOT a reliable sole indicator of adequate anesthetic depth?
• What is the onset of action of Ketamine when given intravenously?
• In dogs, tachycardia is defined as heart rate exceeding what thresholds in large and small dogs?
• In clean-contaminated surgery, what is the recommended timing for prophylactic antibiotic administration?
• What is the duration of action for propofol?
• What is the onset of action of Morphine when given intravenously?
• The use of bupivacaine for pre-scrotal SQ, IP, or QLB blocks provides perioperative analgesia due to what property?
• What is the duration of action of norepinephrine?
• What BIS target range is commonly maintained to minimize intraoperative awareness?
• What is a normal SpO2 for anesthetized dogs?
• Which drug is most associated with vasodilation and heat loss, contributing to hypothermia during anesthesia?
• What is the best description of a normal sinus beat in an anesthetized patient as seen on an ECG?
• During intraoperative anaphylaxis, aside from epinephrine and fluids, what is a critical step?
• What is the duration of action of lidocaine when used as a local anesthetic?
• Which receptor does dexmedetomidine have affinity for?
• Pale mucous membranes during anesthesia most likely indicate which combination of issues?
• What is the immediate treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
• Which sign is the best indicator of appropriate anesthetic depth?
• In ml/kg/min, which range corresponds to high-flow in a rebreathing system?
• Which scenario can contribute to mechanical dead space?
• Which factors most strongly influence postoperative cognitive dysfunction in older adults?
• Which drug given in JSAL could most commonly cause bradycardia?
• In cats, tachycardia is defined as heart rate greater than what?
• What is the distinction between preoperative testing and optimization of comorbidities?
• Which two drugs can be used in hypotensive patients and act as vasopressors?
• Which number falls within the Low Flow range in ml/kg/min?
• Between bupivacaine and lidocaine, which provides longer duration of local anesthesia?
• Which option best describes the purpose of a Quadratus Lumborum Block in spay surgeries?
• Which drug has a duration of 12-24 hours?
• What is the onset of action of Propofol?
• Which statement best describes the hemodynamic management goal during induction in patients with severe aortic stenosis?
• How do ephedrine and phenylephrine differ in their hemodynamic effects?
• Why is it necessary to differentiate intraoperative fever causes, including malignant hyperthermia (MH)?
• In a rebreathing system, which pair best defines high-flow and low-flow rates?
• Which ASA status corresponds to a patient with systemic disease that limits activity but is not life-threatening?
• Where are pulses most reliably detected in adult anesthetized dogs and cats?
• What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?
• What is the role and typical dosing of intralipid therapy in LAST management?
• Which of the following is a side effect of Dexmedetomidine in an anesthetized patient?
• What is the onset of action of dexmedetomidine when given intramuscularly?
• How is propofol typically administered as an induction agent?
• What is the initial action if the patient becomes hypotensive under anesthesia?
• What should you do if ETCO2 is greater than 45 mmHg (hypoventilation)?
• Which of the following describes a common dose-dependent side effect of propofol?
• Which statement best describes propofol's effect on postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) risk when compared with volatile anesthetics?
• Propofol given rapidly can cause which immediate complication?
• What is the rationale for using regional anesthesia in obstetric patients beyond analgesia?
• What is the onset of action of lidocaine when used as a local anesthetic?
• What is the initial lipid emulsion dose for LAST therapy?
• Which set of features best describes hallmark features of anaphylaxis under anesthesia?
• Which of the following ranges correctly states the MAC of isoflurane?
• What is the duration of action of Ketamine?
• How should arterial oxygen content and blood pressure targets be managed during anesthesia in patients with myocardial ischemia risk?
• Regional anesthesia in obstetric patients can improve maternal and neonatal outcomes by which means?
• What is the purpose of flushing anesthetic gases at the end of anesthesia?
• What is the primary cause of hypotension during anesthesia?
• What is the onset of action of Morphine when given intramuscularly?
• What is the goal of multimodal analgesia in the intraoperative and postoperative period?
• What does Mallampati scoring predict?
• Which nerve territories are primarily addressed by a Quadratus Lumborum Block used in a spay procedure?
• Which is NOT a major perioperative venous thromboembolism risk factor?
• What is the main purpose of neuraxial adjuvants (e.g., clonidine, fentanyl) added to spinal/epidural blocks?